OMM Principles and Practice of Osteopathic Medicine II (PPOMII) Practical 1 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which option names the sacral region diagnosis?
• In MET for AC Joint Adduction SD, what is the first step?
• Flexion Hand Placements are associated with which cranial rhythmic impulse phase?
• Which MET is listed first in the material?
• In MET for Superior Pubic Shear Dysfunction, which setup is correct?
• The ankle mortise is formed by which bones?
• Spencer Technique: Circumduction/ Slight Compression
• Lumbar Type II Extension Dysfunction MET: Which step describes turning the upper body and hugging the table face-down?
• Which MET is used for inhalation treatment of ribs 2-6?
• BLT of Thoracic Spine T1-2: Non Neutral Type II is illustrated by which example?
• Which option corresponds to the cervical region from C2 through C7?
• Cervical HVLA is commonly performed at which vertebral levels?
• Alternative Bilateral Sacral Flexion MET: In this technique, what is the initial patient position?
• Radiocarpal Joint Diagnosis: Which joint diagnosis is listed for the wrist?
• BLT of Thoracic Spine: T4-12 Neutral Type I dysfunctions, seated. Which example?
• Which MET is used for inhalation treatment of ribs 7-10?
• Lateral radial head Counterstrain uses which elbow/forearm position?
• BLT of Thoracic Spine: T4-12 Neutral Type I dysfunctions, supine. Which level/pattern is the example?
• In Thoracic Type II HVLA, what modification is added if there is a flexion dysfunction?
• Which MET is used for inhalation treatment of ribs 7-10?
• Which action characterizes the Pubic Gaping MET (Abduction of pubic symphysis)?
• In MET for anterior radial head, which motion does the patient perform?
• Which counterstrain is named for the popliteus muscle?
• In Tibia External Rotation SD MET, which action describes hand placement?
• Superior Vertical Strain Hand Placements are used to address cranial strains where the SBS shows which pattern?
• Bilateral Temporal Contact (Becker Variation) is a variation of which technique?
• Which option names the lumbar region diagnosis?
• Which cranial OMM hold corresponds to the Vault Hold?
• Rib 1 Inhalation MET targets which rib?
• Which option names the diagnosis for rib 11-12?
• Spencer Technique: Adduction/ external rotation
• Which joints comprise the midtarsal (Chopart) joint complex?
• What is the correct Counterstrain treatment position for the supraspinatus tender point?
• In thoracic counterstrain AT10-12, the rotation is directed which way?
• How many times is MET performed for the supination dysfunction (anterior radial head)?
• Bilateral Temporal Contact (Becker Variation) is a variation of which cranial technique?
• Lumbar Type II Flexion Dysfunction MET: Where is the top foot placed?
• What is the final step in MET for AC Joint Rotation SD?
• Which tarsal bone is not part of the midfoot?
• In MET for AC joint Rotation SD, what is the initial patient setup?
• Lumbar Type I MET: Which step involves the clinician facing the patient and monitoring the apex of the lumbar curve?
• Levator Scapulae correction motions?
• Which option names the lumbar diagnosis?
• Which Spencer technique corresponds to Internal Rotation?
• Lateral Strain Hand Placements are used to address cranial strains of which type?
• In Counterstrain for Low Ilium, what is the primary positioning?
• Which HVLA technique addresses the posterior tibiotalar SD?
• Lumbar Type I MET: In step 4, what motion is induced?
• In HVLA for Superior Innominate Shear, which best describes the leg movement?
• Which movement is associated with stage 5b (Adduction/external rotation)?
• Rib Counterstrain AR1-2 Exhaled targets which ribs?
• Which cranial OMM technique is named 'Becker Hold'?
• Where is the tender point for Counterstrain AL5 located?
• In CS AL2-4, on which side should the physician stand relative to the tender point?
• Which counterstrain targets the medial meniscus?
• Upper Pole L5 Counterstrain tender point is located where?
• Which option names the fibular head diagnosis?
• Which label corresponds to MET Forward Sacral Torsion?
• Which MET is used for exhalation treatment of ribs 9-10?
• During the Thoracic Type I HVLA setup, how are the patient's arms arranged?
• Which statement best summarizes the sequence for thoracic HVLA Type I/II as described?
• BLT of Thoracic Spine T1-2 Non Neutral Type II is illustrated by which example?
• Which MET is listed second in the material?
• Which HVLA maneuver is associated with flexion, abduction, and internal rotation of the leg with a tug, for innominate dysfunction?
• In T5-T12 Thoracic Type II MET, where should you stand in relation to the rotational component?
• In thoracic counterstrain AT10-12, the sidebend is directed which way?
• In PL 1-5 Counterstrain, what is described in step 3?
• In MET for Left Unilateral Sacral Extension: Respiratory Assist, during exhalation what does the physician encourage?
• Which MET is used for exhalation treatment of ribs 11-12?
• Which MET would be used to treat a dysfunction at the tibia with dorsiflexion and rotation of the foot to facilitate rotation?
• In MET for Outflare of the innominate, which of the following describes the patient position and knee actions?
• MET for Extension SD targets which joint?
• Which joint is the HVLA manipulation targeting in the anterior radial head technique?
• Which MET is associated with Posterior Fibular Head?
• Which joints connect the tarsal bones to the bases of the metatarsals?
• Which counterstrain is described for the lateral hamstring (Biceps Femoris)?
• Which statement describes Hip Abduction SD MET?
• Rib Counterstrain AR3-10 Exhaled targets which ribs?
• Which technique is used to lift the parietal region?
• Which counterstrain targets the navicular bone?
• Which counterstrain designation corresponds to talocalcaneal eversion?
• Which cranial OMM technique uses a nasion spread to release the naso-frontal suture?
• Which counterstrain technique is used for the lateral hamstring muscle group?
• In Thoracic Type I HVLA, when is the thrust delivered during breathing?
• AC1 Mandible CS targets which anatomical structure?
• OA diagnosis in cranial OMM refers to dysfunction at which joint?
• Which option names the rib 11-12 diagnosis?
• Which HVLA technique addresses the posterior fibular head?
• Which Spencer stage is labeled 'Spencer Technique: Extension'?
• Which option describes Becker Hold?
• Flexor Carpi Ulnaris Counterstrain uses which wrist position?
• Which movement is associated with stage 6?
• Which cranial OMM technique lifts the parietal bone?
• Compression of the Fourth Ventricle in Cranial OMM is addressed with BLT targeting which region?
• BLT of Fibula is listed among cranial OMM topics. Which bone is the focus?
• Which movement combination is used for HVLA treatment of the anterior radial head?
• Thoracic Counterstrain for AT10-12 is performed with the patient in which position?
• Which posterior cervical counterstrain point is classified as F-STAR?
• Which tarsal bone is the most posterior in the foot?
• In the thoracic HVLA protocol, what principle is emphasized first before the thrust?
• Which MET is used for exhalation treatment of ribs 11-12?
• Which description involves a tractional thrust?
• Which option names the AA diagnosis?
• Extensor Carpi Ulnaris Counterstrain uses which wrist position?
• In Hip External Rotation SD MET, which action creates external rotation?
• Which movement combination is used for HVLA treatment of the posterior radial head?
• Abductor Pollicis Brevis Counterstrain uses which wrist/thumb position?
• Which option names the diagnosis for ribs 3-6 and 7-10?
• In MET Forward Sacral Torsion, which hand monitors deep sacral sulcus?
• In HVLA for Posterior Rotated Innominate Dysfunction, which statement is true about the thrust?
• In Thoracic Type II HVLA, which direction is the sidebending performed?
• Which option names the sacral diagnosis?
• Which Spencer technique uses Distraction in Abduction?
• AC7 cervical counterstrain is classified as which of the following?
• What is the correct treatment position for pectoralis minor counterstrain?
• Supraspinatus tender point location?
• Which cranial hold is used to address unilateral temporal restrictions?
• For Tibia External Rotation SD MET, what is the patient position?
• In Sacral MET BLU technique, what does the mnemonic BLU stand for?
• Radioulnar Joint Diagnosis: Pair motions are which?
• Which MET is used for inhalation treatment of rib 11-12?
• Which cranial OMM technique decompresses the condyles?
• In MET for pronation dysfunction, how is the therapist’s other hand positioned to locate the radial head?
• Which counterstrain targets the lateral hamstring muscle group?
• Which technique involves the patient supine with the hands around the dorsum of the foot?
• In MET for AC joint Rotation SD, to what shoulder position is the arm moved to its barrier?
• Which MET is used for exhalation treatment of ribs 9-10?
• In MET for Pubic Gaping Dysfunction (ABDucted Pubic Symphysis), which statement is correct?
• How many times is Normal MET performed for pronation dysfunction?
• Which MET is used for exhalation treatment of ribs 3-5?
• Which movement is associated with stage 5a of the Spencer Technique?
• Which cranial OMM technique involves lifting the frontal bone?
• Which technique applies a direct membranous tension in cranial OMM?
• Which MET addresses the cervical spine in a flexed position (C2-C7)?
• Which technique is described as Hiss Whip HVLA?
• In Type I Thoracic MET, what is the initial patient position?
• Medial Epicondyle (pronator teres) Counterstrain uses which elbow/forearm position?
• Which MET is used for exhalation treatment of ribs 1-2?
• OA Decompression is used to decompress which anatomical structure?
• In the Thoracic Type I HVLA setup, from which position is the patient placed relative to the rotation diagnosis?
• Which statement best describes the leg-position rationale in PL 1-5 Counterstrain?
• Which option names the diagnosis for the first rib?
• In Counterstrain for Iliacus, which position defines the treatment posture?
• Which HVLA technique is used for the posterior tibia SD HVLA?
• In MET Backwards Sacral Torsion, what is the patient position?
• Bilateral Sacral Extension MET: During exhalation, what action does the physician take?
• Which counterstrain corresponds to a medial hamstring (semimembranosus) dysfunction?
• Which counterstrain is associated with the medial hamstring (semimembranosus)?
• Extension Hand Placements are used to influence which cranial rhythmic impulse phase?
• Which movement immediately precedes Internal rotation in the Spencer Technique?
• BLT of Cervical Spine includes an example at C3 ERS right. Which option is that example?
• In T1-T4 Thoracic Type II MET, which vertebrae are palpated?
• Which cranial hold addresses the Fronto-Occipital relationship?
• In MET for Inferior Pubic Shear Dysfunction, which describes the fulcrum location?
• Which option names the ribs 3-6, 7-10 diagnosis?
• In Counterstrain for Psoas, where is the tender point located relative to the ASIS?
• Which statement describes a key stance for an SD MET focusing on hip adduction?
• Lumbar Type I MET: In step 3, what happens with the legs?
• Which MET is used for exhalation treatment of ribs 1-2?
• Which term represents the Calcaneal counterstrain involving flexion of the calcaneus?
• During Thoracic HVLA Type I, in which direction is the patient sidebent?
• Posterior Rib Counterstrain PR2-10 Inhaled addresses which ribs?
• Which cranial OMM technique involves lifting the zygomatic region?
• For Thoracic Counterstrain AT7-9, what is the pattern name used?
• Thoracic Diagnosis is listed as a cranial OMM topic. Which region does it address?
• Rhomboid minor/major tender point location?
• Which description describes a tractional thrust performed by dorsiflexing the foot and pulling toward you?
• MET for Anteriorly Rotated Innominate Dysfunction-SUPINE: After the patient pushes into the physician's hand, what is the next step?
• Which HVLA technique addresses the anterior fibular head?
• Lumbar Type II Flexion Dysfunction MET: Which step involves rotating the chest to face up by using the opposite hand?
• Cranial OMM: Occipitomastoid Suture Release is associated with which named technique?
• Lateral Epicondyle Counterstrain uses which elbow/forearm position?
• Which counterstrain is associated with the medial ankle, specifically the tibialis anterior?
• Which is the correct Counterstrain position for subscapularis tender point?
• In T1-T4 MET, what movement is performed with the head to engage the barrier?
• Which option names the rib 11-12 diagnosis?
• Which term best describes a cranial hand placement used to address rotation of the cranial bones?
• Which is the fourth stage of the Spencer Technique?
• OA Decompression is used to decompress which joint?
• Which counterstrain is described as Calcaneal "Flexion Calcaneus" Counterstrain?
• Which action characterizes the Pubic Compression MET (Adducted Pubic Symphysis)?
• Which counterstrain is described as Extension Ankle (Gastrocnemius) Counterstrain?
• Which option names the diagnosis for C2-C7?
• Which option lists the MET techniques described?
• Which option names the innominate diagnosis?
• The subtalar (talocalcaneal) joint primarily allows which motion?
• BLT of Lumbosacral spine L5-S1 Dysfunction, Supine is exemplified by which pattern?
• Rhomboid Minor/Major Counterstrain: Position?
• Which Spencer technique is described as Adduction/ External Rotation?
• Which counterstrain designation corresponds to tibiotalar dorsiflexion?
• Where is the tender point for Counterstrain AL1 located?
• Which counterstrain targets the lateral trochanteric region?
• In MET for Pubic Compression Dysfunction (Adducted Pubic Symphysis), which describes the physician's action?
• Levator Scapulae Counterstrain correction motions?
• Which counterstrain would you select for a posteromedial trochanteric dysfunction?
• What is the final procedural step common to the MET sequences described?
• In CS AL5, what is the leg/ankle positioning?
• Which cranial hold is described as Unilateral Temporal Hold?
• Which option is a listed cranial hand placement technique?
• In MET for pronation dysfunction of the posterior radial head, which hand contact describes the distal radius?
• HVLA Rib 3-10 Inhalation Dysfunction involves which rib range?
• In PL 1-5 Counterstrain, what is the patient position in step 1?
• Subscapularis tender point location?
• In PL 1-5 Counterstrain, what is the leg position described in step 2?
• MET for Superior Iliac-Pelvic Shear-SUPINE: What is the last instruction before the final traction step?
• Short Head Biceps tender point location?
• In MET for supination dysfunction (anterior radial head), which describes the second hand’s location?
• Sidebending Hand Placements address which movement of the cranial mechanism?
• In MET Forward Sacral Torsion, what does FSU stand for?
• For CS AL1, which of the following describes the initial treatment setup?
• AC1 Transverse Process Counterstrain CS targets which structure?
• HVLA Rib 11-12 Exhaled involves which ribs?
• Which technique is described as Frontal Lift with an alternative hand placement?
• Which technique targets the cranial base articulation between the sphenoid and occipital bones?
• Which MET is associated with Anterior Fibular Head?
• Which HVLA technique is used for the anterior tibotalar dysfunction?
• Which cranial OMM technique employs a direct balanced membranous tension approach?
• In Knee Flexion SD MET, where is the stabilization performed?
• Flexor Carpi Radialis Counterstrain uses which wrist position?
• HVLA Rib 3-10 Exhalation Dysfunction involves which rib range?
• In HVLA for Anterior Rotated Innominate Dysfunction, which description best fits the setup?
• Where is the tender point for Piriformis Counterstrain?
• Posterior Rib Counterstrain PR1 (Inhaled) is associated with which rib?
• In Tibia Internal Rotation SD MET, which statement describes hand placement?
• Which HVLA technique is used for anterior tibotalar joint dysfunction?
• BLT of Thoracic Spine T4-12 Neutral Type I dysfunctions, Supine, is exemplified by which example?
• Which movement comprises stage 7?
• MET for Inferior Innominate Shear: What is the biomechanical goal during the maneuver?
• Which counterstrain is described for the medial hamstring (Semimembranosus)?
• Which HVLA technique is used for dropped navicular, Cuboid, and cuneiform bones as described?
• Extensor Carpi Radialis Counterstrain uses which wrist position?
• Which MET targets the posterior fibular head?
• Spencer Technique: Flexion
• In MET for Left Unilateral Sacral Flexion: Respiratory Assist, which action does the patient perform during inhalation?
• Which counterstrain is described for the lateral meniscus?
• Which joint is primarily responsible for inversion and eversion of the foot?
• Torsion Hand Placements address cranial torsions around which axis?
• HVLA Rib 11-12 Inhaled involves which ribs?
• Before performing HVLA for Anterior Rotated Innominate Dysfunction, which preparatory technique is indicated?
• Which cranial OMM technique uses inferior vertical strain hand placements?
• Which option is NOT a listed cranial OMM technique?
• Which counterstrain targets the lateral aspect of the ankle?
• MET for Inferior Innominate Shear: What is the initial patient position?
• Which counterstrain targets the medial ankle involving the tibialis anterior?
• In MET for AC Joint Adduction SD, what is step 2?
• In MET for AC Joint Adduction SD, what is step 4?
• Which HVLA technique targets the posterior fibular head?
• Which bone is not classified as a tarsal bone?
• Which joint forms the primary articulation of the ankle between the tibia, fibula, and talus?
• PC3 midline is classified as which of the following?
• Spencer Technique: Circumduction with traction
• What movement is primarily allowed at the tibiotalar (ankle) joint?
• Which of the following is the third stage of the Spencer Technique?
• Which exhaled rib counterstrain technique involves ribs 3 through 10?
• Tarsometatarsal joints connect which bones?
• Which of the following is an example for BLT of the Cervical Spine?
• During MET for pronation dysfunction, which describes the patient’s action?
• Which counterstrain designation corresponds to tibiotalar plantarflexion?
• Which counterstrain corresponds to the gastrocnemius-extension at the ankle?
• Which MET is used for exhalation treatment of ribs 6-8?
• Which joint connects the talus to the navicular bone?
• Biceps Short Head / Coracobrachialis Counterstrain: Position?
• Which counterstrain targets the posteromedial trochanteric region?
• Which bones form the subtalar joint?
• Biceps Brachii Long Head Counterstrain: What is the treatment position?
• In Tibia Internal Rotation SD MET, which motion should the patient perform?
• Which MET is used for inhalation treatment of rib 2-6?
• Lumbar Type II Extension Dysfunction MET: Which step involves turning the upper body and then reaching toward the floor?
• Which cranial OMM technique has an alternative hand placement for the frontal lift?
• In Counterstrain for Psoas, how are the legs positioned?
• Where is the tender point for Upper Pole L5 Counterstrain?
• Which joint is located between the calcaneus and the cuboid bones?
• Ulnohumeral Joint Diagnosis: Which joint diagnosis is described?
• In Knee Flexion SD MET, which statement describes the action by the patient?
• BLT of Thoracic Spine T4-12 Neutral Type I dysfunctions, Seated, is exemplified by which example?
• What is the recommended counterstrain treatment for AT1-6?
• Which MET targets the anterior fibular head?
• Which option is a navicular counterstrain?
• Which cranial OMM technique uses hand placements at the sphenobasilar synchondrosis?
• MET adduction SD is applied to which joint?
• Inflare of Innominate MET: How is the leg positioned on the side of dysfunction?
• In T5-T12 MET, what is done with the transverse processes during barrier engagement?
• BLT of Lumbosacral spine L5-S1 Dysfunction, Supine, which example?
• How many tarsal bones are there in the adult foot?
• Which statement describes Hip Adduction SD MET?
• Which counterstrain designation corresponds to talocalcaneal inversion?
• What is the final step after performing the thoracic HVLA technique?
• AC1 Counterstrain can be performed at which targets?
• Which option name corresponds to the cranial hand placement used to address rotation?
• In HVLA for Inferior Innominate Shear, which statement correctly describes the position and thrust?
• Which cranial OMM technique employs an indirect balanced membranous tension approach?
• MET for Posteriorly Rotated Innominate Dysfunction-SUPINE: Where is the physician's hand placement described?
• In Type I HVLA, where is the physician's right thenar eminence placed relative to the vertebra?
• Quadratus Lumborum Counterstrain uses which shoulder position?
• Which MET targets the AA joint?
• In Bilateral Sacral Flexion: Respiratory Assist, which statement describes what occurs during inhalation and exhalation?
• In Counterstrain for inguinal points, which positional combination is used?
• Which counterstrain targets the posterolateral trochanteric region?
• In Piriformis Counterstrain, which movements finely tune the tender point?
• Spencer Technique: Abduction